Question about precum

[arcilitei34]

Now, i already know it's a small droplet of fluid that cleans the urethra that contains sperm right before ejaculation, but i have a few questions.

First, does precum come out like literally a few moments before ejaculation? Or when does it usually come out?

Second, is the sperm in precum fresh? or is it the sperm that's been living in my urethra from the previous ejaculation?

 

[Vincent]

Pre-cum comes out at any point and it can happen without even feeling it. It is still sperm and can still get her pregnant.

Don't be a fool, wrap your tool!

 

[Socialreject]

Uhm yah...

'Pulling out" is NOT an effective means of birth control. Use a rubber ALWAYS.

And yes it can still cause pregnancy and it can come out at any time during intercourse not just right before you blow your wad ;-)

 

[arcilitei34]

Argh, life would be so much easier if it did come out just before you blew your load

 

[doctoroxygen]

Actually, there's only been two studies that I know of re: sperm content in precum, and neither found any motile sperm in it. So precum is not sperm, nor does it contain any sperm. That said, wear a condom.

 

[arcilitei34]

Originally posted by doctoroxygen
Actually, there's only been two studies that I know of re: sperm content in precum, and neither found any motile sperm in it. So precum is not sperm, nor does it contain any sperm. That said, wear a condom.

It's absolutely mindboggling how confused I am when I've read from so many sources that precum contains sperm, and another being that precum doesn't contain sperm.

 

[Socialreject]

Yah well..

you main concern shouldn't be babies. Although a potential financial risk, they are much cuter than say gonorea, herpes, AIDS, etc

 

[arcilitei34]

Originally posted by Socialreject
Yah well..

you main concern shouldn't be babies. Although a potential financial risk, they are much cuter than say gonorea, herpes, AIDS, etc

I'm pretty sure i'm clean, and i'm pretty sure my girlfriend's clean, so it should be okay in that area

 

[white cloud 8]

Originally posted by arcilitei34
I'm pretty sure i'm clean, and i'm pretty sure my girlfriend's clean, so it should be okay in that area

ya never know do yourself a favor and get a check up

 

[Johnnie5]

dont forget that you start to squirt before you actually orgasm so pulling out doesnt mean that you havent sent some sperm on its way

 

[Porky]

precum only contains sperm if you have a partial ejaculation with it or beforehand.

 

[TheRelic]

^

Disregard the advice in the above post.

 

[Porky]

Originally posted by TheRelic
^

Disregard the advice in the above post.

educate yourself:


http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Precum
http://www.coolnurse.com/sex_faqs25.htm
http://www.sexualhealth.com/question.php?Action=read&question_id=2639&channel=15&topic=106

some quotes to pay attention to:

Here is why: when a guy gets aroused, he produces a fluid called pre-ejaculate (“pre-***”), which can contain sperm - although sperm isn't produced in this fluid -- this fluid can be higher in sperm count if he has just had sex or masturbated earlier in the day. (Some sperm might still be in the urethra).

In the studies that have been done which I will refer you to at the end of this answer, sperm was not found to be in pre *** (though HIV virus could be, if you were infected) which means you and your partner are not at much risk of a pregnancy even if it was her ovulation time.

An article in the April 2003 edition of the Journal of Assisted Reproduction & Genetics set out to determine "if spermatozoa are present in the preejaculatory penile secretion, originating from Cowper's gland." After seeing that none of the pre-ejaculate contained sperm, they concluded that "Preejaculatory fluid secreted at the tip of the urethra from Cowper's gland during sexual stimulation did not contain sperm and therefore cannot be responsible for pregnancies during coitus interruptus"

Here's the consensus:

pre-***, which is produced from the Cowper's gland (which is about 2.5 feet of tubing away from where sperm is made) doesn't itself contain sperm. It only contains sperm if there's sperm still in the guy's urethra from a previous ejaculation or from a partial ejaculation.

now you know, Relic.

 

[TheRelic]

Throw all the numbers you like at me son, from those in a field that have more discrepancies of opinion than religious fanatics (though that's not to say I ever take scientists word with a grain of salt, i'm just particular) .

The words "commonly held" "might" and "suggest" (copiously repeated in the studies of limited demographics, as demonstrated by your examples) don't lend themselves to positively eliminating 100% of the variables.

At the end of the day, as you will agree, balancing the weight of chance on that end of the scale is, well, stupid.

I don't see anything constructive in basically advocating that f*cking raw when no ejaculation has occured "recently", is fine. Ejaculation of which, by nature, is not a black and white physiological act.

As are most.

It's all about the individual, variables, and testing these variables.

A test of which I would I would gain more peace of mind in not bothering with.

Now you know, Porky.

 

[Porky]

Originally posted by TheRelic
I don't see anything constructive in basically advocating that f*cking raw when no ejaculation has occured "recently", is fine.

me either.

which is why I didn't say anything of the sort.

this thread asked two very specific questions, and I answered one of them. my girl is on the pill and I still wrap it up every. single. time. I'm not stupid and I'm not interested in having a child at my tender age.

however, you can't disregard what I said because it is extremely relevant. Arcilite wasn't asking if it was safe for him to use the pull out method, he was just asking some general questions about pre-***. Therefore I assumed that perhaps, like me, he recently had a scare in which the condom may have broken and, like me two weeks ago, he was researching whether or not precum had any semen in it.

You telling him to ignore my so-called advice is just giving him the wrong impression and misleading him.

 

[Jay-X]

Originally posted by Porky
me either.

which is why I didn't say anything of the sort.

this thread asked two very specific questions, and I answered one of them. my girl is on the pill and I still wrap it up every. single. time. I'm not stupid and I'm not interested in having a child at my tender age.

however, you can't disregard what I said because it is extremely relevant. Arcilite wasn't asking if it was safe for him to use the pull out method, he was just asking some general questions about pre-***. Therefore I assumed that perhaps, like me, he recently had a scare in which the condom may have broken and, like me two weeks ago, he was researching whether or not precum had any semen in it.

You telling him to ignore my so-called advice is just giving him the wrong impression and misleading him.

man, if lots of people, as me, don't wear condoms, it's not just because they don't like the feeling of the lattex... for me, the 2 main reasons are:

1) they cost a lot
2) it's a lot harder to have sex multiple times or for a long time when you wear one


i know my girlfriend is STD free, since i'm her first partner and STDs are not so common in italy as in the US

the only risk could be pregnancy, that's why we have vaginal sex just during her period and a couple of days after it's done, and i always pull out

 

[diablo]

Originally posted by Porky
precum only contains sperm if you have a partial ejaculation with it or beforehand.

Originally posted by doctoroxygen
So precum is not sperm, nor does it contain any sperm.

Both of these statements are patently false, incorrect, and inaccurate. I've read your 'arguments', Porky, and found that you contradict yourself even in a source you quoted:

Originally posted by Porky
this fluid can be higher in sperm count if he has just had sex or masturbated earlier in the day.

If something is "higher" than it was before, then that means beforehand it was "lower". In the dictionary's definition of the word, "lower" can not equal "nothing"... In other words, there might not be as many sperm in the pre-ejaculate if the person has not had an orgasm within the past 72 hours (sperm live for 3 days), but there are still some in there.

Furthermore, I find it extremely ironic that you cut out the parts of the Wikipedia definition that counter your argument that pre-ejaculate does not contain any sperm... Here is a quote from Wikipedia that you conveniently "left out":

A problem for couples who seek to avoid pregnancy, however, is that the pre-ejaculate may contain sperm.

- http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pre-ejaculate

Originally posted by Jay-X
man, if lots of people, as me, don't wear condoms... for me, the 2 main reasons are:

1) they cost a lot

No offense, but which do you think will cost more - a box of condoms or raising a child for 18 years (or if you're both pro-choice, an abortion)? Only an idiot would use "they're too expensive" as a reason that they don't wear condoms. Hell, they give them away in every public health center and hospital! How old are you?!

 

[doctoroxygen]

The Wikipedia is not a scientific journal. Neither is this website but it is published by Princeton University. It says "Two small studies found no motile sperm in preejaculatory fluid, but that is all the evidence there is." That's all the evidence there is. It may be "common sense" that there is sperm in precum, but common sense ain't science.

Still, wear a condom.

 

[Porky]

I didn't "conveniently" leave anything out, Diablo. I cited the source, gave the web page, and showed the quote that I felt was relevant. I left myself open to scrutiny because I wasn't trying to hide anything. From now on I'll quote entire sources D, just for you, but I expect you'll get on my case for putting in useless info.

The Wikipedia is not a scientific journal.

Exactly why I gave more than one source saying the same thing...

Both of these statements are patently false, incorrect, and inaccurate. I've read your 'arguments', Porky, and found that you contradict yourself even in a source you quoted:

Okay Diablo, we can be overly technical. here, I'll edit my statement for your benefit.

most studies show that pre-*** only has useful, motile sperm if the guy has had a partial ejaculation at the same time as having pre-*** or if he ejaculated beforehand.

now that I'm done holding your hand through that, is there a point you're trying to make, Diablo? or are you just arguing for the sake of it?

 

[arcilitei34]

Alright, thanks for all of your input guys, means alot to me.

So, precum is just a fluid that washes out my urethra to prepare for an ejaculation, and only contains sperm that has survived in my urethra up to that point, correct?
In otherwords, if I hadn't recently orgasmed in the last 72 hours, there shouldn't be sperm in it?