R
Rubato
Guest
It seems to me that the more I read about exogenous testosterone administration, the more it seems to differ from other chemical manipulations in the body, even those within the HPTA axis. After administration of any exogenous AAS (like testosterone), the HPTA axis begins to suffer almost immediately. LH secretions drop, GnRH secretions drop, endogenous testosterone production plummets, and the leydig cells in the testes become almost useless. When one stops exogenous administration, this situation does not correct itself very well, especially without pharmacological intervention. A battery of medications from one or more selective estrogen receptor modulator to HCG may be used to help restore pituitary and testicular function in post cycle therapy. While this helps, it is not guaranteed that HPTA axis function will ever return to previous baseline levels and may be forever impaired.
Why doesn't the body correct itself, even if it takes a long time? It doesn't seem to work this way across other seemingly similar biochemical pathways.
Let's talk about dopamine, for example. I have taken dopamanergic medications for an REM sleep disorder off and on for 2 years or so now under the direction of a neurologist. It will probably be impossible to legitimately compare this to testosterone because I never assessed and am not sure if it's possible to assess my endogenous levels of dopamine prior to starting the medications.
All I know is that within a few weeks of cessation from either methylphenidate or amphetamine (provided it's been properly tapered... this is not true of cold turkey cessation, which is very painful) I feel exactly like I felt previously.
As far as the data I've seen, within a few months of total cessation from dopamanergic drugs, there is no greater downregulation of DAT action, dopamine receptor number, or dopamine production from baseline. When you start talking about substituted amphetamines like methamphetamine and ecstasy, this does not hold 100% because there is a higher level of neurotoxicity associated amphetamine substitution and I'm not aware of the precise mechanism of action.
I've also noticed this same thing to be true in my case of gabanergic medications. This lies outside of the HPTA axis but demonstrates tolerance, down-regulation of gaba receptors, receptor ligands, and dependence with prolonged use. Again, I've never had my gaba levels assessed, but from a qualitative point of view, I do not notice any changes. The literature I've read does not make note of permanent neurological changes within benzodiazepam or barbiturate users within 6 months of cessation, so far as I'm aware.
And then there's testosterone. 4 months of exogenous administration can totally suppress HPTA axis and render the leydig cells significant less useful from anywhere to a little while to a lifetime. Granted, gaba is a neurotransmitter, a totally different chemical class from the hormone, but dopamine is a neuro-hormone. A peptide hormone rather than a steroid, but still a hormone.
I've thought about other biochemicals that fit the same sort of profile as testosterone, opioid receptor agonists and even estrogen analogues used for female birth control. They don't seem to work like testosterone. And if anything was going to work like testosterone, it would seem that estrogen analogues would. The only complaints you see with women who take them as birth control seem to be very non-serious things like bloating, weight gain, and more seriously (and rarely), estrogen sensitive breast cancer.
After thinking about this, I've come up with 4 reasons why this may be:
1 - my examples don't hold because the biochemical's endogenous levels were not raised directly by exogenous administration, but indirectly through receptor modulation. At the end of the day both mechanisms result in the same thing - higher endogenous concentrations of the chemical in question - but the mechanism of action is different. I don't know if this is significant or not.
2 - The negative feedback component of the testicular portion of the HPTA axis is more sensitive than the other negative feedback components of the axis and of other biochemical mechanisms of concentration control.
3 - My examples are flawed because no biochemical levels were assessed before and after. Subjective feelings do not indicate real bio levels. I could be suppressed and not know it.
4 - Excessive levels of testosterone are either directly or indirectly toxic to a component of the HPTA axis, either as a result of the chemical itself, or as a result of an unknown metabolite of a chemical process in which it is involved. Another possibility is that a component of the HTPA axis is dependent on a product of the negative feedback pathway and when it is absent, so too is the necessary chemical.
Thoughts?
Why doesn't the body correct itself, even if it takes a long time? It doesn't seem to work this way across other seemingly similar biochemical pathways.
Let's talk about dopamine, for example. I have taken dopamanergic medications for an REM sleep disorder off and on for 2 years or so now under the direction of a neurologist. It will probably be impossible to legitimately compare this to testosterone because I never assessed and am not sure if it's possible to assess my endogenous levels of dopamine prior to starting the medications.
All I know is that within a few weeks of cessation from either methylphenidate or amphetamine (provided it's been properly tapered... this is not true of cold turkey cessation, which is very painful) I feel exactly like I felt previously.
As far as the data I've seen, within a few months of total cessation from dopamanergic drugs, there is no greater downregulation of DAT action, dopamine receptor number, or dopamine production from baseline. When you start talking about substituted amphetamines like methamphetamine and ecstasy, this does not hold 100% because there is a higher level of neurotoxicity associated amphetamine substitution and I'm not aware of the precise mechanism of action.
I've also noticed this same thing to be true in my case of gabanergic medications. This lies outside of the HPTA axis but demonstrates tolerance, down-regulation of gaba receptors, receptor ligands, and dependence with prolonged use. Again, I've never had my gaba levels assessed, but from a qualitative point of view, I do not notice any changes. The literature I've read does not make note of permanent neurological changes within benzodiazepam or barbiturate users within 6 months of cessation, so far as I'm aware.
And then there's testosterone. 4 months of exogenous administration can totally suppress HPTA axis and render the leydig cells significant less useful from anywhere to a little while to a lifetime. Granted, gaba is a neurotransmitter, a totally different chemical class from the hormone, but dopamine is a neuro-hormone. A peptide hormone rather than a steroid, but still a hormone.
I've thought about other biochemicals that fit the same sort of profile as testosterone, opioid receptor agonists and even estrogen analogues used for female birth control. They don't seem to work like testosterone. And if anything was going to work like testosterone, it would seem that estrogen analogues would. The only complaints you see with women who take them as birth control seem to be very non-serious things like bloating, weight gain, and more seriously (and rarely), estrogen sensitive breast cancer.
After thinking about this, I've come up with 4 reasons why this may be:
1 - my examples don't hold because the biochemical's endogenous levels were not raised directly by exogenous administration, but indirectly through receptor modulation. At the end of the day both mechanisms result in the same thing - higher endogenous concentrations of the chemical in question - but the mechanism of action is different. I don't know if this is significant or not.
2 - The negative feedback component of the testicular portion of the HPTA axis is more sensitive than the other negative feedback components of the axis and of other biochemical mechanisms of concentration control.
3 - My examples are flawed because no biochemical levels were assessed before and after. Subjective feelings do not indicate real bio levels. I could be suppressed and not know it.
4 - Excessive levels of testosterone are either directly or indirectly toxic to a component of the HPTA axis, either as a result of the chemical itself, or as a result of an unknown metabolite of a chemical process in which it is involved. Another possibility is that a component of the HTPA axis is dependent on a product of the negative feedback pathway and when it is absent, so too is the necessary chemical.
Thoughts?